Question:
I have a question for you “Greek guys.”  In 1 John 1, John speaks of sin and our advocate for our sin, but in chapter 3, he goes on to say “whoever sins has not seen Him, neither known Him,” and, “he that committeth sin is of the devil.”

One explanation I've heard is that the words for sin in the Greek were different, one meaning “to err,” the other meaning “an ongoing practice of sin.”  But looking at the Greek words, the two used in the text are the same, so now I'm totally confused.