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Ephesians

Question:
I have a question for you “Greek guys.”  In 1 John 1, John speaks of sin and our advocate for our sin, but in chapter 3, he goes on to say “whoever sins has not seen Him, neither known Him,” and, “he that committeth sin is of the devil.”

One explanation I've heard is that the words for sin in the Greek were different, one meaning “to err,” the other meaning “an ongoing practice of sin.”  But looking at the Greek words, the two used in the text are the same, so now I'm totally confused.

Question:
If the husband wants the whole family to worship at one place under one pastor, should a wife leave her church and join her husband’s church?

Question:

I've always been told you can forfeit your salvation. It sounds like you are saying this is impossible when you give your life to Christ. Can't people backslide?

The underlying teaching of the Word of God is that only Jesus can rebuke the devil. Jesus is the only one who has authority and power over Satan. This is evidenced by Acts 19:13-20 - some traveling Jewish exorcists tried to use the "formula" that Paul was using by casting out demons in the name of the Lord. The demon jumped on them and beat them up and sent them running out naked.

The Greek word for sin is not the issue in 1 John 2:1 and 1 John 3:4-8. The issue is the verb tenses.

 

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